Telangana High Court
Solipuram Venkat Reddy vs Adjudicating Authority on 15 July, 2026
Author: Nagesh Bheemapaka
Bench: Nagesh Bheemapaka
IN THE HIGH COURT OF JUDICATURE FOR THE STATE OF
TELANGANA
HON'BLE SRI JUSTICE NAGESH BHEEMAPAKA
WRIT PETITION No. 4360 OF 2025
15.07.2026
Between:
Solipuram Venkat Reddy & others
..... Petitioners
And
Adjudicating Authority
Under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002
& others
..... Respondents
O R D E R:
Petitioner No.1 is engaged in the transportation and
logistics business and is also carrying on construction activities
involving commercial and residential projects in Hyderabad and
Bangalore. He is a partner in several firms engaged in the
aforesaid lawful business activities. It is the specific case of
petitioners that the income derived from the said businesses is
duly recorded in the books of account, the accounts are
regularly audited and income tax returns are filed disclosing
income from all sources. Petitioners further state that the firms
in which Petitioner No.1 is a partner had availed loans from
2
various banks including Andhra Pradesh Mahesh Cooperative
Urban Bank Limited, Hyderabad (Mahesh Bank) during the
period from 2014 to 2023 for the purpose of their business
activities and that all such loans were repaid regularly together
with interest and other charges.
1.1. It is the case of petitioners that officers of the 2nd
Respondent conducted search proceedings on 31.07.2024 at the
residential premises of Petitioners 1, 2, 3 and 5 and at the
maternal house of Petitioner No.4 on the allegation that one
Purshottamdas Mandhana, who was Vice-Chairman of Andhra
Pradesh Mahesh Cooperative Urban Bank Limited, was involved
in offences of money laundering and that Petitioner No.1 was
allegedly associated with him. During the course of the said
search proceedings, the officers seized gold ornaments weighing
6309.09 grams valued at Rs.4,27,24,300/-, Indian currency of
Rs. 14,50,000/-and foreign currency of USD 3256 from the
residences of Petitioners 1, 2, 3 and 5 and from the maternal
house of Petitioner No.4 along with property documents, locker
keys of two lockers and a mobile phone under Panchanama
dated 31.07.2024.
1.2. Petitioner No.1 has no business transactions with
Purshottamdas Mandhana except availing loans from Mahesh
3
Bank and also from the HUF account of Purshottamdas.
Mandhana during the ordinary course of business and that the
entire loan amount together with interest and other charges was
repaid in full. Petitioners specifically contend that they are in no
manner connected with the business activities of Mahesh Bank
or its Vice-Chairman Purshottamdas Mandhana. Petitioner No.1
had addressed the letter dated 17.08.2024 to Respondents
explaining that all transactions with Mahesh Bank were regular
business transactions and that he had no involvement in any
alleged money laundering activity of the bank or its office
bearers and sought release of the seized cash, jewellery and
documents. However, Petitioners have not received any reply
from the 2nd Respondent.
1.3. It is stated, petitioner No. 1 had addressed another
detailed representation dated 03.10.2024 explaining the
transactions of his business entities with Mahesh Bank and
demonstrating that the loans were availed in the regular course
of business and that he had no other transactions whatsoever
with the bank or with Purshottamdas Mandhana. Petitioners
further contend that Petitioner No.1 furnished complete
particulars relating to purchase of gold ornaments by himself
and the other petitioners over a span of nearly 25 years and also
4
furnished details regarding the source of the Indian currency
seized, which according to petitioners represented withdrawals
from bank accounts. It is further contended that the jewellery
seized was duly supported by purchase bills and despite
furnishing all supporting material, no response was received
from the office of the 1st respondent.
1.4. Under Section 20(1) of the Prevention of Money
Laundering Act, 2002 (for short, ‘the Act’), cash, goods or
documents seized under Section 17 of the Act can be retained
only for a period of 180 days and for retention beyond the said
period the investigating officer is required to file an Application
before the Adjudicating Authority specifying “reasons to believe”
that the property is required for adjudication under Section 8 of
the Act. Petitioners contend that the 2nd Respondent filed
Original Application dated 23.08.2024 under Section 17(4) of
the Act seeking retention of the seized properties beyond 180
days alleging that Purshottamdas Mandhana was a partner in
M/s. Profound Infra along with Petitioner No.1, that several
suspicious transactions existed between Petitioner No.1 and
Purshottamdas Mandhana, that loans granted to M/s Hive
Space were diverted to Petitioner No.1’s account and remitted to
Mainland Digital Technologies and Profound Builders and that
5Petitioner No.1 may have acted as a proxy for the business
interests of Purshottamdas Mandhana. According to petitioners,
the Original Application merely contained bald allegations and
suspicion without any cogent material to establish that the
seized jewellery, Indian currency or foreign currency constituted
proceeds of crime.
1.5. Original Application filed by the 2nd Respondent
before the Adjudicating Authority specifically referred to
suspicious transactions between borrowers of APMCU Bank and
family members of Purshottamdas Mandhana and also alleged
circuitous transactions between entities related to Petitioner
No.1 such as Intercity Transport Logistics, Indian Auto Services,
Ease on Wheels Logistics and Hivespace. However, in support of
the said claims/allegations 2nd respondent had failed to place
any material establishing that any illegal transaction took place
between Petitioner No.1 and the office bearers of Mahesh Bank
or that any proceeds of crime were generated by petitioners.
1.6. Based on the Original Application filed by the 2nd
Respondent, the 1st Respondent issued a show cause notice
dated 02.09.2024 under Section 8(1) of the Act stating that it
contained “reasons to believe”. Petitioners contend that no such
“reasons to believe” were furnished along with the show cause
6notice and that the notice itself did not disclose any material
showing involvement of Petitioner No. 1 in money laundering or
that the seized properties constituted proceeds of crime. It is
further contended that no notices whatsoever were issued to
Petitioners 2 to 5 though substantial portions of the jewellery
belonged to them. According to petitioners, the entire
proceedings are therefore, vitiated by violation of principles of
natural justice.
1.7. Petitioner No.1 filed a detailed reply dated
03.10.2024 to the show cause notice contending that the notice
was issued without recording or furnishing valid “reasons to
believe” as mandated under the PMLA and that in the absence
of any reasons to believe that Petitioner No.1 was involved in
money laundering activity, retention of the cash, jewellery and
documents seized from the premises of petitioners was wholly
illegal. Petitioner No.1 specifically contended before the
Adjudicating Authority that the seizure proceedings were
initiated merely on assumptions and presumptions alleging
suspicious transactions between Petitioner No. 1 and one of the
accused in the predicate offence and that seizure of property
cannot be sustained on mere suspicion in the absence of prima
facie evidence. It is the specific and categorical case of
7petitioners that all properties seized were lawfully acquired and
that complete documentary evidence regarding legal acquisition
was produced before the authorities, however it was not
considered while passing the impugned order.
1.8 Petitioner No.1 specifically denied the allegation
that Purshottamdas Mandhana was partner in M/s Profound
Infra and contended that the allegation was false and baseless.
Documentary evidence filed and produced before the competent
authority clearly established that no benefit whatsoever was
derived by Petitioner No. 1 from any accused in the predicate
offence and that all loans availed from Mahesh Bank were
repaid in the ordinary course of business along with interest
and charges. It is denied in specific that the allegation regarding
diversion of loan sanctioned to M/s. Hive Space, a sole
proprietorship concern of Petitioner No.3, was false and
contrary to the record and that the entire loan amount was
utilized for the purpose for which it was sanctioned, namely
creation of infrastructure for leasing premises, and the entire
amount was repaid to the bank.
1.9. Further, seizure of Indian currency amounting to
Rs.14,50,000/- was illegal as the source of the said amount was
duly demonstrated through bank withdrawal statements. So
8also is the case with the seizure of foreign currency amounting
to USD 3256, as the said currency belonged to petitioners and
represented leftover foreign exchange retained after foreign
travel. Petitioners relied upon RBI Master Circular No.6/2015-
16 dated 01.07.2015 to contend that every traveller is entitled to
retain USD 2000 per visit. Petitioners further contended that
under Section 20(4) of the PMLA, the Adjudicating Authority is
required to satisfy itself that the property sought to be retained
is prima facie involved in money laundering and required for
adjudication under the Act. Investigating officer failed to
produce any evidence whatsoever demonstrating that the seized
cash, jewellery or property documents were involved in money
laundering and therefore the movable properties, cash and
documents ought to have been released.
1.10. Along with the reply filed before the Adjudicating
Authority, petitioner No.1 filed extensive documentary evidence
including copy of the Partnership Deed dated 18.01.2018 of M/s
Profound Infra showing that Purshottamdas Mandhana was not
a partner therein, Supplementary Amendment Agreement dated
15.10.2023, copies of loan sanction letters issued by AP Mahesh
Bank, copies of loan closure letters, documents pertaining to
transfer of M/s Hive Space loans from AP Mahesh Bank to
9Kotak Mahindra Bank, worksheets showing details of repayment
to Purshottamdas Mandhana’s HUF and family members, copy
of loan sanction letter dated 06.02.2020 issued to M/s Hive
Space, No Dues Certificate dated 01.02.2024 issued to M/s Hive
Space, Lease Deed dated 01.10.2019, bank statements
evidencing withdrawal of cash and relevant pages of passports
and visas of Petitioners 1, 2 and 3.
1.11. In support of the contentions of petitioners, they
filed affidavits, statements of jewellery owned by each petitioner
and respective purchase bills through memo dated 26.11.2024.
It is specifically contended that Petitioner No.4 is the married
daughter of Petitioners 1 and 2 and the jewellery belonging to
her kept at her maternal house was also seized illegally.
Petitioners contend that the purchase value of jewellery
belonging separately to Petitioners 1 to 5 was as follows:
Petitioner No. 1 – Rs. 1,60,38,105/-
Petitioner No. 2-Rs. 87,01,050/-
Petitioner No. 3-Rs. 16,34,310/-
Petitioner No. 4-Rs. 57,16,777/-
Petitioner No. 5- Rs. 1,60,000/-
Total Rs. 3,22,50,242/-
10
1.12. Petitioners further contend that the present market
value of the jewellery as estimated by a Government registered
valuer was Rs. 4,27,24,300/-. Despite filing detailed replies,
affidavits and documentary evidence, the 1st respondent passed
the impugned order dated 06.01.2025 allowing retention of the
seized properties and documents without considering the
submissions advanced by petitioners. According to petitioners,
the Adjudicating Authority passed a cryptic order merely
observing that prima facie allegations related to money
laundering existed and that the seized material demonstrated
involvement of proceeds derived from illicit activities.
1.13. Petitioners specifically assail paragraph 5(III) of the
impugned order wherein the only allegation recorded against
Petitioner No. I is that he was “suspected to have paid
commissions to Sh. Purshotamdas Mandhana in return of the
loans sanctioned to him or his entities.” It is contended that
except for the aforesaid observation based purely on suspicion,
there is no finding whatsoever in the impugned order linking
petitioners or their properties with any offence of money
laundering. Impugned order was passed without examining the
documentary evidence filed by them and therefore suffers from
non-application of mind, violation of principles of natural justice
11and predetermined bias. That apart, no opportunity whatsoever
was afforded to Petitioners 2 to 5 though their jewellery was also
seized and retained.
1.14. It is stated, Purshottamdas Mandhana himself
informed petitioner No.1 that his statement before the
Enforcement Directorate was obtained under coercion and that
he denied being a partner in M/s Profound Infra. Even in the
reply filed by Purshottamdas Mandhana before the Adjudicating
Authority, no allegation whatsoever was made against Petitioner
No.1 or his entities. This itself establishes that Petitioner No.1
was in no manner connected with the alleged offence of money
laundering. Petitioners contend that seizure and retention of
their jewellery, Indian currency and foreign currency is illegal
and that the Petitioners have been deprived of their lawful
property without authority of law. Though purchase bills,
income tax returns and assessment records were produced
demonstrating lawful acquisition and possession of the
jewellery, the same were ignored by respondents. Entire
jewellery belongs to the family members except the ornaments
worn on their persons at the time of search, which was seized
arbitrarily and without jurisdiction.
12
1.15. Respondents failed to establish “proceeds of crime”
as defined under Section 2(1)(u) of the Act. The subject jewellery
was purchased over a period of nearly 25 years had no nexus
whatsoever with the alleged illegal activities of office bearers of
Mahesh Bank and that neither the Original Application nor the
impugned order records any finding that the jewellery, cash or
foreign currency represented proceeds of crime. Petitioners
relied upon the judgment of the Patna High Court in HDFC
Bank Limited Chotisaraiya ganj v. Government of India1
wherein it was held that property acquired from legitimate
sources cannot be attached merely because property derived
from scheduled offences is unavailable and that only property
derived or obtained from criminal activity would fall within the
ambit of “proceeds of crime”.
1.16. It is stated, the impugned order is wholly without
jurisdiction as Section 20(4) of the Act mandates that the
Adjudicating Authority must record satisfaction that the
property is prima facie involved in money laundering and
required for adjudication. According to petitioners, no such
finding exists either in the Original Application filed by the 2nd
Respondent or in the impugned order dated 06.01.2025.
1
2021 SCC OnLine Pat 4222
13
Petitioners further contend that no valid “reasons to believe”
were recorded either by the 1st Respondent or the 2nd
Respondent in relation to petitioners or the seized properties.
Reasons to believe were recorded only against persons accused
in the predicate offence and not against Petitioner No.1 or the
other Petitioners. In the absence of “reasons to believe”
connecting petitioners with money laundering activity, retention
of the seized properties is wholly illegal.
1.17. Apart from the decision of Patna High Court in
HDFC Bank Limited Chotisaraiya ganj vs. Government of
India 2, petitioners have relied upon the following decisions in
support of the contention that “reasons to believe” cannot be
founded upon mere suspicion and must be based on cogent
material:
(i) Income Tax Officer, Calcutta & Ors. vs. Lakhmani Mewal
Das 3;
(iv) Sony Music Entertainment India Pvt. Ltd. vs. Assistant
Director, Directorate of Enforcement, Mumbai; 62
2021 SCC OnLine Pat 4222
3
(1976) 3 SCC 757
4
2021 (2) TMI 117-Supreme Court
5
2021 (3) TMI 1132-Andhra Pradesh High Court
6
MANU/ML/0026/2019
14
(v) Universal Music India Pvt. Ltd. vs. Deputy Director,
Directorate of Enforcement, Mumbai 7
(vi) Yash Raj Films Pvt. Ltd. vs. Deputy Director, Directorate
of Enforcement Mumbai 8.
1.18 Petitioners further contend that seizure of property
cannot be sustained merely on the basis of suspicion. According
to the Petitioners, despite production of all evidence
demonstrating that the seized properties were not proceeds of
crime through representations dated 17.08.2024 and
03.10.2024, Respondents proceeded with seizure and retention
without any prima facie evidence. In support of this submission,
petitioners relied upon the following judgments:
(i) Kavitha G. Pillai vs. Joint Director, Directorate of
Enforcement 9
(ii) Bhanuben & Ors. vs. State of Gujarat 10.
1.19. Allegations regarding suspicious transactions and
alleged partnership with Purshottamdas Mandhana in M/s
Profound Infra were demonstrably false and stood disproved
through documentary evidence filed before the authorities. All
7
MANU/ML/0024/2019;
8
MANU/ML/0022/2019
9
2017 (3) KLT 1143
– Kerala High Court
10
2017 (354) ELT 193-Gujarat High Court
15
transactions pertaining to loans obtained from Mahesh Bank
and from the HUF of Purshottamdas Mandhana were fully
explained and not a single illegal transaction between Petitioner
No.1 and the office bearers of the bank was demonstrated by the
Respondents. The authorization issued by the Joint Director on
30.07.2024 for search and seizure did not disclose any reasons
to believe recorded under Section 17(1) and no material
evidencing compliance with Section 17(1) was placed either in
panchanama or before the Adjudicating Authority. According to
petitioners, the property was attached merely on assumptions
and presumptions.
1.10. In support of the aforesaid contention relating to
mandatory compliance under Section 17 of the PMLA,
petitioners relied upon the following judgments:
1.11. It is the further case of petitioners that Petitioner
No.5 was scheduled to be married on 15.02.2025 in accordance
with Hindu customs and traditions and the gold jewellery seized
11
(2016) 12 SCC 608
12
(2014) 8 SCC 425
13
2021 (2) BLJ 131
16
from petitioners was required for the wedding ceremonies.
According to petitioners, seizure of the entire family jewellery is
valued at Rs.4,27,24,300/- caused immense hardship,
emotional distress and mental agony to petitioners, particularly
to Petitioners 2 to 4 who were not even connected with the
investigation under the PMLA. Petitioners contend that although
an alternative remedy of appeal under Section 26 of the Act
before the Appellate Tribunal for SAFEMA, New Delhi was
available within 45 days from the date of receipt of the
impugned order, the present writ petition was filed since the
impugned order was passed without jurisdiction, without
authority of law, in violation of principles of natural justice and
without considering the documentary evidence produced by
petitioners. It is stated that the impugned order was received by
Petitioner No.1 on 13.01.2025 and the appeal period was to
expire on 27.02.2025.
2. Respondent No.2 filed counter contending that
Respondent Directorate of Enforcement is an investigating
agency functioning under the Government of India, Ministry of
Finance and is empowered to investigate offences under the Act
and the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999. Respondents
specifically contend that the Directorate of Enforcement is the
17
only competent authority authorized to investigate offences
under the PMLA and FEMA. The writ petition is premature and
reflects the insecurity of petitioners, who according to
respondents rushed to this Court without any genuine
apprehension despite the statutory mechanism available under
the PMLA. Searches were conducted on 31.07.2024 at seven
residential premises, one of which belonged to petitioner and
consequent to the searches, Respondent Directorate duly filed
Original Application No.1305/2024 dated 27.08.2024 before the
learned Adjudicating Authority seeking retention of the seized
properties, documents and devices, which came to be confirmed
by order dated 06.01.2025.
2.1. Investigation conducted by the Respondent
Directorate pertains to the offence of money laundering defined
under Section 3 and punishable under Section 4 of the Act.
Offence of money laundering is an independent offence distinct
from the scheduled offence and that investigation under the
PMLA can be interdicted only where the information available
does not disclose ingredients of the offence under Section 3 of
the Act.
2.2. ECIR/HYZO/09/2021 was registered on the basis
of FIR No.218 of 2021 dated 12.03.2021 and FIR No.222 of
18
2021 dated 13.03.2021 registered by Police Station Banjara
Hills, Hyderabad against Ramesh Kumar Bung, Umesh Chand
Asawa, Purshotamdas Mandhana and Ester Rani John under
Sections 120-B read with Sections 409, 420, 467, 468, 471 and
477-A IPC. The said FIRs disclosed large-scale financial
irregularities in Andhra Pradesh Mahesh Cooperative Urban
Bank Limited involving illegal loan disbursements, siphoning of
funds and fraudulent activities by office bearers of the bank.
2.3. FIR No.218/2021 pertained to alleged unfair
practices adopted during the General Body Elections of the
Bank. Accused persons, in connivance with each other,
converted ineligible members, namely gold loanees without
voting rights, into Ordinary “A” class members with voting rights
to ensure victory in the elections. It is alleged that around 1800
fictitious or dummy gold loanees with voting rights were
enrolled between 02.11.2020 and 17.11.2020 and that such
loanees included family members and known associates of the
accused persons as well as certain bank employees. FIR No.222
of 2021 related to illegal distribution of loans to family
members, entities related to Board Members, Directors and
major shareholders of the Bank and siphoning of funds in the
guise of construction of the Head Office Building. Loans
19
amounting to nearly Rs.300 crores were distributed to various
entities against illegal collateral securities such as Wakf Board
lands and papers relating to non-existent properties after
charging commissions ranging between 2 and 10%. It is further
alleged that Rs.20.73 crores was illegally distributed to persons
and entities related to Board Members, Directors and major
shareholders through falsification of records and forged loan
documentation and that the accused persons inflated the cost of
construction of the Head Office Building and siphoned off
Rs.18.30 crores from the Bank.
2.4. During the course of investigation, complaints
dated 17.03.2021 and 19.04.2021 submitted by one
Omprakash Modani were received alleging that several entities
and individuals paid hefty commissions to the accused persons
in exchange for favours such as restructuring of loans, One
Time Settlements and dilution of eligibility criteria. The
Respondents specifically refer to the following entities and loan
amounts:
(i) Maa Tripura Sundari, Khammam – Rs.6 crores;
(ii) Vaishnavi Service Station, Charminar – Rs.5 crores;
(iii) Arjun Solvent, Guntur – Rs.20 crores;
(iv) Classic Convention of Krishna Reddy – Rs.9 crores;
20
(v) M/s. Indian Auto Services Centre – Rs.6 crores;
(vi) Intercity Transport Logistic – Rs. 12.50 crores;
(vii) East of Wheels – Rs.4 crores;
(viii) Sony Transports – Rs.10 crores; and
(ix) Venkat Reddy and Others – Rs.12 crores.
2.5. After registration of the ECIR, summons were
issued to Ramesh Kumar Bung. Purshottamdas Mandhana and
Umesh Chand Asawa for recording of statements and collection
of details relating to bank accounts and movable and immovable
properties for verification of the allegations contained in the
FIRs and complaints. Various details including sale deeds,
encumbrance certificates and details of loan accounts related to
Board Members and Directors of the Bank were obtained and
examined by the Respondent Directorate. That scrutiny of bank
account statements and examination of documents relating to
properties underlying various loans revealed large-scale
irregularities in operation of loan accounts and acquisition of
multiple properties by family members of the principal suspects
at values significantly below prevailing market rates and in
certain instances below the valuations adopted by the Bank at
the time of sanction of loans.
21
2.6. During investigation, it was also revealed that in the
annual inspection carried out by the Reserve Bank of India into
the affairs of Andhra Pradesh Mahesh Cooperative Urban Bank,
the RBI had taken note of irregularities in the functioning of the
top management of the Bank and had issued show cause
notices proposing removal of Ramesh Kumar Bung,
Purshottamdas Mandhana and Umesh Chand Asawa from their
official positions. During examination of Purshotamdas
Mandhana under Section 50 of the Act, it was revealed that
three partners in M/s Profound Developers @M/s. Profound
Infra apart from him were Petitioner No.1, G.V. Rao and
Murlidhar Reddy. Bank account analysis further revealed
several suspicious transactions between Petitioner No. 1 and
entities related to him, namely Intercity Transport Logistics,
Indian Auto Services, Ease on Wheels Logistics and Hivespace,
on the one hand, and family members of Purshottamdas
Mandhana on the other hand and that there existed circuitous
transactions between the said entities and that loan accounts
were closed through remittances received from related entities
without scrutiny regarding end use of earlier disbursed loans.
22
2.7. It is also the specific case of the Respondents that
loans granted to M/s Hive Space, which according to
Respondents is related to Petitioner No.1 and loan amounts
were diverted to the personal account of Petitioner No.1 and
thereafter, remitted to Mainland Digital Technologies and
Profound Builders in violation of the designated purpose for
which the sanctioned loan and credit facilities were granted.
From the pattern of transactions observed in the accounts of
Petitioner No.1 and entities related to him, Respondents
suspected that the loans disbursed to such entities had been
beneficially used by Purshottamdas Mandhana and Petitioner
No.1 was acting as a proxy for the business interests of
Purshottamdas Mandhana.
2.8. On the basis of credible information and reasons to
believe recorded in writing, search proceedings were conducted
on 31.07.2024 at seven residential premises including the
premises of petitioners herein. During the search proceedings,
jewellery, cash, foreign currency, mobile phones and other
electronic devices containing incriminating information were
seized and the same were duly recorded in the Panchanama
drawn at the premises of the Petitioner. Consequent to the
seizure of the subject properties, Respondent Directorate filed
23
Original Application No.1305/2024 dated 27.08.2024 before the
learned Adjudicating Authority seeking retention of the seized
properties till completion of investigation and adjudication
proceedings. The learned Adjudicating Authority issued show
cause notices dated 02.09.2024 to all Respondents in the said
Original Application and after receipt of reply dated 10.10.2024
filed by Petitioner No. 1 and after hearing both parties on
21.12.2024, passed the order dated 06.01.2025 confirming
retention of the seized properties.
2.9. Respondents deny the contention of petitioners
regarding non-compliance with Section 17 of the PMLA and
contend that Respondent Directorate duly complied with the
provisions of Section 17 of the Act by recording reasons to
believe in writing and forwarding the same along with
supporting material to the Respondent No.1 within the
prescribed period. Respondent No.1 is a judicial authority
constituted under the PMLA by the Central Government and is
competent to independently apply its mind and adjudicate upon
the materials placed before it and therefore the allegation that
the proceedings were arbitrary or contrary to law is baseless.
2.10. Investigation under the PMLA is still underway and
the final outcome regarding the seized properties is dependent
24
upon the result of the ongoing investigation. Respondents
contend that at the time of search proceedings conducted on
31.07.2024 Petitioner No.1 failed to furnish any documentary
evidence establishing ownership of the jewellery seized and that
this constituted one of the primary reasons for seizure of the
jewellery. Discrepancies existed in the description of individual
jewellery items and the value thereof to the extent of
approximately Rs.1.2 crores except the valuation reports
prepared during earlier Income Tax proceedings. Petitioners
failed to produce adequate documentary evidence establishing
acquisition and legitimacy of the jewellery.
2.11. Respondents further contend that the jewellery
seized during the search proceedings is required to be retained
for further investigation in order to ascertain whether any part
of the proceeds of crime was utilized for acquisition of the same
and that in the event the jewellery is ultimately found
unconnected with proceeds of crime, the same would be
released. Petitioner No.1 had several bank transactions with
Purshotamdas Mandhana and his family members which are
prima facie suspected to be quid pro quo transactions or
commissions paid in return for sanction of loans. Since
investigation is still underway, the seized properties, documents
25
and devices are necessary for establishing the Petitioners
‘involvement in money laundering and their retention is
therefore sine qua non for effective investigation.
2.12. The jewellery seized appears to have been
purchased during the period from 2011 to 2022 and is largely
held in the names of the wife and daughter of Petitioner No.1
and there exists mismatch between the jewellery seized and the
descriptions furnished subsequently. The Respondents further
contend that the claim regarding necessity of jewellery for
marriage ceremonies is not sufficient ground for release of the
seized jewellery. Plea regarding marriage of Petitioner No.5 and
necessity of jewellery for engagement and wedding ceremonies
was not properly raised before Respondent No.1 during the
adjudication proceedings. Oral arguments before the
Respondent No.1 concluded on 21.12.2024 whereas the
communication regarding the engagement ceremony was sent
only on 11.12.2024. It is further contended that once
adjudication proceedings are pending before the Adjudicating
Authority, the Investigating Officer is not empowered to release
any seized property and that the Petitioners ought to have
approached the appropriate appellate forum.
26
2.13. Petitioners have an efficacious alternative remedy
by way of appeal before the Appellate Tribunal under Section 26
of the PMLA against the order dated 06.01.2025. Petitioners
have received the impugned order on 13.01.2025 and had time
to file appeal till 27.02.2025, Petitioners without having availed
the statutory remedy and instead rushed to this Court.
According to the Respondents, at this stage of investigation the
jewellery cannot be released and is required to be retained for
further action under the provisions of the PMLA. During the
course of investigation the Deputy Director issued Provisional
Attachment Order No.33/HYZO/2025 dated 29.08.2025 under
the proviso to Section 5(1) of the Act after following due process
and upon gathering sufficient material for issuance of the said
attachment order. Mere non-attachment of the jewellery seized
from the Petitioners does not conclusively establish absence of
involvement of the Petitioners in money laundering or absence
of nexus between the jewellery and proceeds of crime. During
the course of investigation it emerged that Umesh Chand Asawa
and his son Rohit Asawa were found to be in possession of
proceeds of crime likely to be concealed or transferred and
therefore the Deputy Director issued the aforesaid Provisional
Attachment Order No.33/HYZO/2025 dated 29.08.2025 after
27
recording reasons to believe and upon satisfaction that
immediate attachment was necessary to prevent frustration of
proceedings under the PMLA.
2.14. Respondents lastly contend that investigation under
the PMLA is still in progress and that the Directorate expects to
file prosecution complaint under Sections 44 and 45 of the
PMLA before the Special Court on or before 02.01.2026.
According to Respondents, the final outcome regarding the
seized jewellery, cash and the alleged role of the Petitioners is
subject to conclusion of the investigation and filing of
prosecution complaint before the Special Court constituted
under the PMLA.
3. Petitioner filed a reply contending that the
contentions of the Respondents that filing of the present writ
petition demonstrates insecurity on their part or they
approached this Court without genuine apprehension is wholly
baseless, arbitrary and reflective of the high-handed attitude
adopted by Respondents. It is contended that such averments
themselves demonstrate scant regard on the part of
Respondents 1 and 2 towards statutory safeguards under the
2002 Act and towards their constitutional rights. It is
specifically contended that Respondents have illegally and
28
arbitrarily retained Petitioners’ properties beyond the statutory
limit prescribed under Section 20(4) of the Act without satisfying
the mandatory requirements contemplated under law.
3.1. Petitioners are not accused in any of the scheduled
offences registered against the office bearers of Andhra Pradesh
Mahesh Cooperative Urban Bank Limited, therefore, the
allegations relating to the affairs of the said Bank have no nexus
or relevance to petitioners. It is specifically contended that
despite making allegations regarding payment of commissions
to accused persons in relation to restructuring of loans and
sanction of credit facilities, Respondents have not placed even a
single piece of evidence on record demonstrating that petitioners
paid any commission or that any alleged commission
constituted “proceeds of crime” so as to attract the provisions of
the Act.
3.2. Petitioners specifically assert that there are no
outstanding loans payable by them to Andhra Pradesh Mahesh
Cooperative Urban Bank Limited and that all loan accounts
were fully cleared and closed by 2022 itself. They rely upon the
loan closure letters and ‘No Due Certificate’ to establish that all
loans obtained from APMCU Bank were repaid in full together
with interest and applicable charges. Although the FIRs against
29
the office bearers of APMCU Bank were registered in 2021 and
the ECIR was also initiated in the same year, even after lapse of
nearly four years, respondents failed to place any material
whatsoever demonstrating that the cash, gold jewellery and
documents seized from them constituted “proceeds of crime”.
Petitioners contend that no “reasons to believe” supported by
cogent material have been produced against them, therefore, the
entire proceedings initiated against them are without
jurisdiction, arbitrary, illegal and initiated for extraneous
reasons.
3.3. Petitioners specifically deny the allegations made in
paragraph 16 of the counter and contend that M/s Profound
Developers and M/s Profound Infra are entirely distinct and
separate entities. According to them, respondents attached the
properties of petitioners without even conducting preliminary
verification of the relevant facts and documents. Both the
Original Application filed before Respondent No. 1 and the
impugned adjudication order wrongly alleged that
Purshottamdas Mandhana was a partner in M/s Profound Infra,
which allegation has been conclusively disproved by the
partnership documents filed by Petitioners.
30
3.4. It is categorically pleaded by petitioners that for the
first time in the counter, the 2nd Respondent changed its stand
and alleged that Purshottamdas Mandhana was a partner in
M/s Profound Developers. Even this allegation is factually
incorrect as Purshottamdas Mandhana had already retired from
the said partnership in 2023. Petitioners rely upon the
partnership deed and deed of retirement to substantiate the
same. In support of the aforesaid contention, petitioners place
reliance upon the judgment of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in
Mohinder Singh Gill v. Chief Election Commissioner 14,
wherein it was held that an impugned order must stand or fall
on the reasons contained in the order itself and that fresh
reasons cannot subsequently be introduced through affidavits.
Thus, respondents cannot now improve upon the deficiencies in
the Original Application and the impugned order by introducing
altogether new allegations in the counter affidavit before this
Court. It is further contended that even assuming, without
admitting, that Purshottamdas Mandhana was a partner along
with Petitioner No.1 in a partnership concern, such relationship,
by itself, does not constitute evidence of money laundering nor
does it establish receipt of any proceeds of crime by petitioners.
14
(1978) 1 SCC 405
31
Petitioners specifically contend that M/s Profound Developers
never availed any loan from APMCU Bank and respondents
failed to produce any transaction linking the said entity to the
alleged offence of money laundering. Petitioner No.1 had no
business transactions whatsoever with Purshottamdas
Mandhana in his individual capacity and had no connection
with the alleged money laundering offences attributed to him.
Respondents 1 and 2 failed to establish existence of any
proceeds of crime in the hands of the Petitioners so as to justify
invocation of jurisdiction under the PMLA and seizure of the
assets belonging to the Petitioners.
3.5. Petitioners reiterate that the loan obtained by M/s
Hive Space was utilized exclusively for the purpose for which it
had been sanctioned and that documents evidencing closure of
the said loan account with Mahesh Bank were produced both
before the Adjudicating Authority and before this Court.
Respondents themselves have averred that they “suspect” that
loans disbursed to Petitioner No. 1 and related entities were
used for the benefit of Purshottamdas Mandhana and therefore,
the very foundation of the proceedings is based solely upon
suspicion and assumptions. Thereby the attachment and
32
retention of property merely on suspicion without production of
supporting material is wholly without authority of law.
3.6. Further more, on the face of the record it is
apparent that there is/are no valid “reasons to believe” were
recorded against Petitioner No.1 either prior to the search
proceedings conducted on 31.07.2024 or in the show cause
notice issued thereafter. According to petitioners, seizure of all
documents, cash and jewellery lying in the residential premises
of petitioners merely on the assumption that they ‘may have
paid commission’ to accused persons in the scheduled offence is
wholly arbitrary, without jurisdiction and contrary to the
provisions of the PMLA. They specifically contended that the
purported “reasons to believe” relied upon by respondents are
wholly absent insofar as petitioners are concerned and neither
the “recording of reasons” document nor any supporting
material establishes involvement of petitioners or the seized
properties in money laundering activity.
3.7. Respondents have failed to produce any
documentary or other evidence establishing existence of
proceeds of crime in the hands of petitioners. On the contrary,
petitioners furnished all documents evidencing lawful
acquisition and ownership of jewellery including Annexure-P-21
33
and Annexure-P-22 filed before the Adjudicating Authority and
before this Court. Respondents calling upon them to furnish
documentary proof for jewellery acquired over a span of nearly
25 years at the very moment of seizure is unreasonable,
arbitrary and absurd. Despite production of affidavits, jewellery
bills, tabular statements, income tax returns and valuation
details establishing lawful acquisition and ownership of
jewellery by petitioners, Respondent No.1 had failed to discuss
or render any finding whatsoever on such material and instead
mechanically confirmed retention of the jewellery. It is the
further case of petitioners, Respondents 1 and 2 have acted with
a predetermined mindset and without application of mind while
seizing and retaining the properties belonging to petitioners.
3.8. That apart, there is no rebuttal made by
Respondents inter alia the specific contention of petitioners that
all loans availed from Mahesh Bank had already been repaid in
full. This aspect itself demolishes the allegation that any illegal
financial benefit was derived by petitioners from the accused
persons connected with APMCU Bank. Even otherwise, for the
purpose of mere retention of seized properties under Section 20
of the Act, Respondents are legally-obligated to establish that
the seized properties constitute “proceeds of crime” within the
34
meaning of Section 2(1)(u) of the Act. Neither Respondents nor
the Adjudicating Authority have produced any material
whatsoever to demonstrate that the seized jewellery, cash or
documents were derived from criminal activity.
3.9. The jewellery seized from the residential premises of
Petitioner No.1 belongs not merely to Petitioner No.1 but also to
Petitioners 2 to 5, which fact stands established through
affidavits, purchase bills and income tax returns collectively
filed as Annexure-P-21 and Annexure-P-22 to the writ petition.
Petitioners 2 to 5 are not even accused or parties to the money
laundering proceedings initiated by the 2nd Respondent and
therefore, seizure and retention of their properties without
issuance of notices is grossly violative of principles of natural
justice. In support of the contention that “reasons to believe”
cannot be founded upon mere suspicion, petitioners rely upon
the judgment in Kavitha G. Pillai vs. Joint Director,
Directorate of Enforcement 15, wherein it was held that
“reason to believe” requires credible information and probable
conclusions and cannot be based upon surmises or conjectures.
Respondents themselves admitted in the counter that the
jewellery was being retained only for “ascertaining whether any
15
2017 (3) KLT 1143
35part of the proceeds of crime is used for acquiring such
jewellery”. According to petitioners, such averment itself
demonstrates that the seizure and retention are founded only
upon suspicion and not upon any recorded finding that the
jewellery actually constitutes proceeds of crime. They contend
that they cannot be deprived of their constitutional right to
property merely on the basis of assumptions and
unsubstantiated suspicion.
3.10. It is stated, the son of Petitioners 1 and 2, Petitioner
5 got engaged in December, 2024 and was scheduled to be
married on 15.02.2025, as evidenced by the wedding invitation
filed as Annexure-P-23 to the writ petition. However, the
wedding was later postponed due to the sudden death of a
family member of the bride. Petitioners contend that jewellery
forms an integral and significant part of Hindu marriage
ceremonies and the illegal seizure of the entire family jewellery
subjected petitioners to immense emotional distress, mental
agony and hardship. Petitioners repeatedly addressed
communications dated 31.07.2024 and 17.08.2024 and also
sent e-mail dated 11.12.2024 to the 2nd respondent furnishing
complete details relating to the business activities and loans
availed by entities related to Petitioner No.1 and also informing
36respondents about the impending engagement and marriage
ceremonies of Petitioner No.5. Despite receipt of such
information and supporting material, respondents proceeded
with the Original Application seeking retention of the seized
properties without explaining how the properties constituted
proceeds of crime.
3.11. The show cause notice supplied by Respondents
merely stated that a copy of the “recorded reasons” was
enclosed. However, the document styled as “recording of
reasons” annexed as Annexure-P-8 to the writ petition contains
merely a heading and does not disclose how Petitioner No.1 is
connected to any scheduled offence or how the seized properties
constitute proceeds of crime. According to petitioners,
respondents have acted in complete disregard of the mandatory
provisions of Section 17 of the Act. In support of the aforesaid
contention, petitioners place reliance upon the judgment of the
Hon’ble Supreme Court in Opto Circuit India Ltd. vs. Axis
Bank 16 wherein it was held that when a statute prescribes a
particular manner in which a thing is required to be done, it
must necessarily be done in that manner alone and failure to
comply with the prescribed procedure would vitiate the action.
16
2021 (2) TMI 117-SC
37Petitioners contend that respondents failed to comply with the
mandatory safeguards prescribed under Section 17 of the Act
and therefore, the entire search and seizure proceedings are
unsustainable in law.
3.12. Petitioners rely upon the judgment in Income Tax
Officer, Calcutta & Others vs. Lakhmani Mewal Das 17,
wherein it was held that there must exist a direct nexus or live
link between the material available and the formation of belief
by the authority. Section 24 of the Act places burden of proof
upon a person accused of money laundering only after the
Respondents establish existence of “proceeds of crime”. In the
present case, according to petitioners, respondents have failed
even to establish the basic jurisdictional fact that any proceeds
of crime were received by petitioners. Petitioners contend that
they have sufficiently demonstrated through documentary
evidence that all loans were repaid in time, seized jewellery was
acquired through legitimate income sources and that petitioners
2 to 5 are neither accused nor connected with the money
laundering proceedings.
3.13. Petitioners rely upon the visas and travel
documents of Petitioners 1, 2 and 3 filed along with Writ
17
(1976) 3 SCC 757
38Petition to substantiate lawful possession of the foreign
currency. Petitioners 2 to 5, who are not even accused in the
money laundering proceedings, have been illegally deprived of
their properties in violation of Articles 14, 19, 21 and 300A of
the Constitution of India. Respondents failed to rebut the
specific contention that under Section 20(4) of the Act retention
of seized property beyond the prescribed period can be
permitted only after the Adjudicating Authority records
satisfaction that the property is prima facie involved in money
laundering and required for adjudication under Section 8 of the
Act. According to petitioners, no such finding has been recorded
by Respondent No.1 in the impugned order dated 06.01.2025
and therefore the impugned order is wholly illegal and
unsustainable in law.
4. Heard Ms. Y. Siri Reddy, learned counsel for
petitioner, Sri Anil Prasad Tiwari, learned Standing Counsel for
Respondents 1 and 2 and Sri N. Bhujanga Rao, learned Deputy
Solicitor General on behalf of Respondent No.3.
5. The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002
(hereinafter referred to as ‘the Act’) was enacted by the
government to provide for confiscation of property derived from
or invoked in Money Laundering activities. The Scheme of the
39Act provides for initial attachment of the proceeds of the crime
in possession of any person for an initial period of 180 days by
the Director or any other Officer not below the rank of Deputy
Director authorized by the Director, for the purposes of Section
5 of the Act. Section 5 stipulates the process of attachment and
Section 3 defines ‘Money Laundering’. As per the language of
Section 5, attachment can be made only when the said officer
records, in writing, his reason to believe that such a person is in
possession of any proceeds of carrying in that such proceeds of
crime are likely to be concealed or transferred or debited in any
manner which may result in frustration of any proceedings
relating to confiscation of such proceedings of the crime. After
such provisional attachment is made, the same order of
attachment along with the material in possession of the said
officer shall be forwarded to the adjudicating authority in a
sealed envelope for further proceedings. Upon receipt of such
provisional attachment order the adjudicating authority after
due notice to such a person, shall, under Section 8, adjudicate
on the question whether the property under attachment is
involved in Money Laundering and direct the confiscation of
such property or direct the release of such attachment.
Similarly, where the authority has, recorded in writing, his
40
reason to believe, that any person is in possession of the
proceeds of crime involved in money laundering, may authorize
any officer subordinate to him to search and seize such
property. Upon such seizure, the adjudicating authority is again
informed and the adjudicating authority would have to further
confirm the said seizure of the property. Thereby, it is clear from
the language of the Act, the Sine Qua Non for exercise of the
powers under either Section 5 or Section 17 is formation of
opinion, by a competent officer, that the condition set out in
these sections are found to exist. In the absence of such a
finding, exercise of powers under these sections would be
without basis and cannot survive in the absence of these
requirements.
6. On the basis of the aforesaid legal requirements,
now it needs to be considered whether exercise of commission of
search and seizure taken as against petitioners by Respondents
is legal and in accordance with the provisions of the Act.
7. This Court has carefully considered the rival
submissions advanced on behalf of petitioners and respondents
and perused the entire material placed on record including the
pleadings, documents, annexures, impugned order dated
41
06.01.2025 passed in Original Application No.1305/2024 and
the provisions of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002.
8. The principal issue that arises for consideration
before this Court is whether the impugned order dated
06.01.2025 permitting retention of the seized jewellery weighing
6309.09 grams valued at Rs.4,27,24,300/-, Indian currency of
Rs.14,50,000/- and foreign currency of USD 3256 satisfies the
mandatory statutory requirements prescribed under Sections
17, 20 and 8 of the 2002 Act and whether the said proceedings
conform to the constitutional safeguards guaranteed under
Articles 14 of the Constitution.
9. It is not in dispute that search proceedings were
conducted by the officers of the Directorate of Enforcement on
31.07.2024 at the residential premises of Petitioners 1, 2, 3 and
5 and at the maternal residence of Petitioner No.4. During the
said proceedings, gold jewellery weighing 6309.09 grams valued
at Rs.4,27,24,300/-, Indian currency of Rs.14,50,000/- and
foreign currency of USD 3256 together with certain documents,
locker keys and electronic devices were seized under
Panchanama dated 31.07.2024. It is also not in dispute that the
basis for initiation of investigation by the Directorate of
Enforcement was ECIR/HYZO/09/2021 registered pursuant to
42
FIR Nos.218/2021 and 222/2021 registered by Police Station
Banjara Hills, Hyderabad relating to alleged irregularities in
Andhra Pradesh Mahesh Cooperative Urban Bank Limited.
10. A careful examination of the record further reveals
that Petitioner No.1 is admittedly not arrayed as an accused in
the predicate FIRs forming the basis for the ECIR proceedings.
Equally, Petitioners 2 to 5 are not accused in the scheduled
offences nor are they shown to be accused in any proceedings
under the PMLA. This factual position assumes significance in
view of the contention of the Respondents that the seized
properties are required to be retained on the premise that the
Petitioners are allegedly connected with transactions involving
Purshottamdas Mandhana, one of the accused in the scheduled
offences. Thus, it is apparent as on the date of the search and
seizure there is no material evidence either direct or indirect, to
connect the Petitioners to the Crimes registered as against the
Directors of the Bank. Furthermore, the fact that is staring at
Respondents is that the business concerns of the Petitioner
No.1 had availed loans from the Bank and were repaid. These
circumstances and facts will have significant say in the
adjudication of the present lis.
43
11. The statutory scheme under Sections 17 and 20 of
the PMLA makes it abundantly clear that the drastic powers of
search, seizure and retention affecting valuable property rights
can be exercised only upon strict compliance with the
safeguards incorporated in the statute. Section 17 contemplates
existence of “reasons to believe”, based upon material in
possession, that a person is in possession of proceeds of crime
or records relating to money laundering. In the instant case, in
the Impugned Order there are no reasons given inter alia
“reasons to believe”, rather the Respondent No.1 with there
being any substantial pleading and evidence merely believed the
version of the Respondent No.2 and had passed the order which
is impugned.
12. Section 20 of the Act stipulates that continued
retention of seized property beyond the prescribed period is
permissible only where the Adjudicating Authority is satisfied
that the property is prima facie involved in money laundering
and is required for adjudication under Section 8 of the Act.
These safeguards are not empty formalities but constitute
substantive protections against arbitrary exercise of power. In
the present case, this Court finds considerable force in the
contention advanced by petitioners that the impugned order
44
dated 06.01.2025 does not reflect meaningful consideration of
the voluminous documentary material placed on record by
them. Petitioners produced partnership deeds, supplementary
partnership agreements, loan sanction letters, loan closure
certificates, No Due Certificates, repayment details, bank
statements, jewellery purchase bills, valuation reports,
affidavits, income tax returns, passports, visas and
documentary material concerning acquisition of the jewellery
over a span of nearly twenty-five years. However, the impugned
order is conspicuously silent as regards examination of the said
material and does not record any finding as why the
explanations furnished by the Petitioners were unacceptable.
13. It is well-settled that authorities exercising powers
under a statue shall act and perform as mandated by the statue
and the resulting order must disclose due application of mind
and reasons supported by the evidence in arriving at the
conclusion reached. The requirement of recording reasons is an
integral component of fairness in administrative and quasi-
judicial action. A reasoned order alone enables judicial review
and assures the affected party that its submissions were duly
considered. In the present case, the impugned order merely
reproduces allegations and concludes that prima facie
45
allegations of money laundering exist without analyzing the
material relied upon by either side. Such an approach falls
short of the statutory obligation cast upon the Adjudicating
Authority under Section 20(4) of the Act.
14. The only substantive allegation recorded in the
impugned order against Petitioner No.1 is that he was
“suspected to have paid commissions” to Purshottamdas
Mandhana in return for loans sanctioned to him or entities
related to him. Respondents themselves repeatedly employ
expressions such as “suspicious transactions”, “suspected
commissions”, “possible diversion of loans” and “likely beneficial
use”. Suspicion, however grave, cannot, by itself, constitute
legal proof or substitute the mandatory statutory requirement of
“reasons to believe” founded upon cogent material. There must
exist a live nexus between the material relied upon and the
conclusion that the seized properties constitute proceeds of
crime. Mere conjecture or surmise cannot justify continued
deprivation of property. As discussed supra, petitioner No.1
business concerns have availed loans and have repaid the same
with any quarrel and that apart the none either the Bank,
Complainant nor the even the Investigating agency have a
dispute over the said loan transactions. Thus, Respondent No.1
46
while passing the impugned order had completely over looked
these requirements. Hence, the impugned order is in error and
cannot be allowed to sustain.
15. This Court further notices that despite serious
allegations regarding payment of commissions and diversion of
loans, Respondents have not placed on record any material
demonstrating the said alleged acts nor that any amount
representing proceeds of crime was actually received by the
Petitioners. Respondents also failed to establish that the seized
jewellery, Indian currency or foreign currency was derived or
obtained from criminal activity relating to a scheduled offence
within the meaning of Section 2(1)(u). On the contrary,
petitioners specifically produced loan closure documents,
repayment details and documentary evidence indicating that
loans availed from Andhra Pradesh Mahesh Cooperative Urban
Bank Limited had been repaid by the year 2022 itself.
16. The contention of Respondents that Petitioner No.1
was connected with Purshottamdas Mandhana through M/s
Profound Infra and M/s Profound Developers also does not
appear to have been properly examined by Respondent No.1-
Adjudicating Authority. Petitioners consistently contended that
M/s Profound Developers and M/s Profound Infra are separate
47
entities and further asserted that Purshottamdas Mandhana
was never a partner in M/s Profound Infra. It is further the case
of petitioners that Purshottamdas Mandhana retired from M/s
Profound Developers in 2023. Whether these assertions are
ultimately true or otherwise though required examination on the
basis of documentary evidence produced by petitioners, the
same was not considered by the Respondent No.1 – Adjudicating
Authority while passing the impugned order. Further, impugned
order contains no discussion whatsoever regarding the
partnership deeds or retirement documents placed on record by
the Petitioners. The aforesaid lapses by Respondent
No.1/Adjudicating Authority in passing the impugned order are
good enough to set aside the impugned order.
17. This Court also finds merit in the submission of
petitioners that Respondents cannot improve upon deficiencies
made in the impugned order by introducing altogether new
allegations in the counter affidavit filed before this Court. The
law laid down by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Mohinder
Singh Gill vs. Chief Election Commissioner is well-settled
that validity of a statutory order must be judged on the reasons
stated in the order itself and not on fresh grounds subsequently
introduced through affidavits. The impugned order dated
48
06.01.2025 therefore, cannot be sustained on the basis of
explanations subsequently furnished in the counter affidavit
before this Court.
18. Further, this Court is considering the judgment in
Shobha Woollens Pvt. Ltd v. Union of India 18 (W.P.No.2737
of 2021). The facts of the said case are similar to the present
case. In the said order, the applicability of law and procedure to
be followed by the investigating agency are discussed and
concluded that the exercise of search and seizure under
provisions of the Act shall be strictly adhered and in violation of
the same, the seizure of the property shall be set aside. The
relevant portion of the said order is extracted hereunder:-
” 13. The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 was
brought in, to provide for confiscation of property derived from or
invoked in Money Laundering activities. Money Laundering is defined,
under Section 3 of the Act, as follows:
” Whosoever directly or indirectly attempts to indulge or
knowingly assists or knowingly is a party or is actually involved in any
process or activity connected proceeds of crime including its
concealment, possession, acquisition or use and projecting or claiming it
as untainted property shall be guilty of offence of money-laundering.”
14. Section 5 of the Act reads as follows:
” Attachment of property involved in money-Laundering.- (1)
Where the Director or any other officer not below the rank of Deputy
Director authorised by the Director for the purposes of this section, has
reason to believe (the reason for such belief to be recorded in writing), on18
2021 SCC Online AP 423
49the basis of material in his possession, that- (a) any person is in
possession of any proceeds of crime; and (b) such proceeds of crime are
likely to be concealed, transferred or dealt with in any manner which
may result in frustrating any proceedings relating to confiscation of
such proceeds of crime under this Chapter, he may, by order in writing,
provisionally attach such property for a period not exceeding one
hundred and eighty days from the date of the order, in such manner as
may be prescribed: Provided that no such order of attachment shall be
made unless, in relation to the scheduled offence, a report has been
forwarded to a Magistrate under section 173 of the Code of Criminal
Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), or a complaint has been filed by a person
authorised to investigate the offence mentioned in that Schedule, before
a Magistrate or court for taking cognizance of the scheduled offence, as
the case may be, or a similar report or complaint has been made or filed
under the corresponding law of any other country: Provided further that,
notwithstanding anything contained in clause (b), any property of any
person may be attached under this section if the Director or any other
officer not below the rank of Deputy Director authorised by him for the
purposes of this section has reason to believe (the reasons for such
belief to be recorded in writing), on the basis of material in his
possession, that if such property involved in money-laundering is not
attached immediately under this Chapter, the non-attachment of the
property is likely to frustrate any proceeding under this Act. (2) The
Director, or any other officer not below the rank of Deputy Director,
shall, immediately after attachment under sub-section (1), forward a
copy of the order, along with the material in his possession, referred to
in that sub-section, to the Adjudicating Authority, in a sealed envelope,
in the manner as may be prescribed and such Adjudicating Authority
shall keep such order and material for such period as may be
prescribed. (3) Every order of attachment made under sub-section (1)
shall cease to have effect after the expiry of the period specified in that
sub-section or on the date of an order made under sub-section (2) of
section 8, whichever is earlier. (4) Nothing in this section shall prevent
the person interested in the enjoyment of the immovable property
50attached under sub-section (1) from such enjoyment Explanation.- For
the purposes of this sub-section “person interested”, in relation to any
immovable property, includes all persons claiming or entitled to claim
any interest in the property. (5) The Director or any other officer who
provisionally attaches any property under sub-section (1) shall, within a
period of thirty days from such attachment, file a complaint stating the
facts of such attachment before the Adjudicating Authority.
15. Section 17 of “the Act” reads as follows:
” Search and seizure.-(1) Where the Director or any other
officer not below the rank of Deputy Director authorised by him for the
purposes of this section, on the basis of information in his possession,
has reason to believe (the reason for such belief to be recorded in
writing) that any person- (i) has committed any act which constitutes
money-laundering, or (ii) is in possession of any proceeds of crime
involved in money laundering, or (iii) is in possession of any records
relating to money-laundering, or (iv) is in possession of any property
related to crime then, subject to the rules made in this behalf, he may
authorise any officer subordinate to him to- (a) enter and search any
building, place, vessel, vehicle or aircraft where he has reason to
suspect that such records or proceeds of crime are kept; (b) break open
the lock of any door, box, locker, safe, almirah or other receptacle for
exercising the powers conferred by clause (a) where the keys thereof are
not available; (c) seize any record or property found as a result of such
search; (d) place marks of identification on such record or property, if
required or make or cause to be made extracts or copies therefrom; (e)
make a note or an inventory of such record or property; (f) examine on
oath any person, who is found to be in possession or control of any
record or property, in respect of all matters relevant for the purposes of
any investigation under this Act: Provided that no search shall be
conducted unless, in relation to the scheduled Soffence, a report has
been forwarded to a Magistrate under section 157 of the Code of
Criminal Procedure, 1973, (2 of 1974) or a complaint has been filed by a
person, authorised to investigate the offence mentioned in the Schedule,
before a Magistrate or court for taking cognizance of the scheduled
51offence, as the case may be, or in cases where such report is not
required to be forwarded, a similar report of information received or
otherwise has been submitted by an officer authorised to investigate a
scheduled offence to an officer not below the rank of Additional
Secretary to the Government of India or equivalent being head of the
office or Ministry or Department or Unit, as the case may be, or any
other officer who may be authorised by the Central Government, by
notification, for this purpose. (LA) Where it is not practicable to seize
such record or property, the officer authorised under subsection (1),
may make an order to freeze such property whereupon the property
shall not be transferred or otherwise dealt with, except with the prior
permission of the officer making such order, and a copy of such order
shall be served on the person concerned: Provided that if, at any time
before its confiscation under sub-section (5) or sub-section (7) of section
8 or section 58B or subsection (2A) of section 60, it becomes practical to
seize a frozen property, the officer authorised under subsection (1) may
seize such property. (2) The authority, who has been authorised under
subsection (1) shall, immediately after search and seizure or upon
issuance of a freezing order forward a copy of the reasons so recorded
along with material in his possession, referred to in that sub-section, to
the Adjudicating Authority in a sealed envelope, in the manner, as may
be prescribed and such Adjudicating Authority shall keep such reasons
and material for such period, as may be prescribe c’ (3) Where an
authority, upon information obtained during survey under section 16 is
satisfied that any evidence shall be or is likely to be concealed or
tampered with, he may, for reasons to be recorded in writing, enter and
search the building or place where such evidence is located and seize
that evidence: Provided that no authorisation referred to in sub-section
(1) shall be required for search under this sub-section. (4). The authority
seizing any record or property under sub-section (1) or freezing any
record or property under sub-section (IA) shall, within a period of thirty
days from such seizure or freezing, as the case may be, file an
application, requesting for retention of such record or property seized
52under subsection (1) or for continuation of the order of freezing served
under sub-section (IA), before the Adjudicating Authority.”
16. The scheme of the Act provides for an initial attachment
of the proceeds of the crime in the possession of any person for an initial
period of 180 days by the Director or any other Officer not below the
rank of Deputy Directo, r Authorised by the Director, for the purposes of
Section 5 of the Act. This attachment can be made only when the said
officer records, in writing, his reason to believe that such a person is in
possession of any proceeds of crime and that such proceeds of crime are
likely to be concealed or transferred or debited in any manner which
may result in frustration of any proceedings relating to confiscation of
such proceedings of the crime. After such provisional attachment is
made, the said order of attachment, along with the material in
possession of the said officer, shall be forwarded to the adjudicating
authority in a sealed envelope for further proceedings. Upon receipt of
such provisional attachment order, the adjudicating authority, after due
notice to such a person, shall, under Section 8, adjudicate on the
question of whether the property under attachment is involved in Money
Laundering and direct the confiscation of such property or direct the
release of the said attachment.
17. Similarly, where the authority has, recorded in writing,
his reason to believe, that any person is in possession of the proceeds of
crime involved in Money Laundering. may authorize any officer
subordinate to him to search and seize such property. Upon such
seizure, the adjudicating authority is again informed and the
adjudicating authority would have to further confirm the said seizure of
the property.
18. It is clear from the above that, the sine qua non for
exercise of the powers under either section 5 or section 17 of the Act is
the formation of an opinion, by a competent officer, that the conditions
set out in these sections are found to exist. In the absence of such a
finding, the exercise of power under these Sections would be without
basis and cannot survive in the absence of these requirements. There
are no such reasons recorded in the order dated 6.11.2020.
53
19. The Hon’ble Supreme Court in OPTO Circuit India
Limited v. Axis Bank, dated 03.02.2021 passed in Criminal Appeal No.
102 of 2021, had considered a similar situation. In this case, the
concerned authority, without any findings either under Section 5 of the
Act or under Section 17 of the Act, had directed a debit-freeze/stop
operation of the accounts of the petitioner therein. The Hon’ble Supreme
Court after considering the provisions of the Act had held that while the
provisions of the Act empower the appropriate authority to attach or
seize the proceeds of the crime, the due process set out in the Act would
have to be followed and the minimum requirement for such due process
is the formation of an opinion, that he has “reason to believe”, set down
in writing. The Hon’ble Supreme court had also held that this formation
of opinion, at the very least should be available in the file of the
authority. In the present case also no finding, recorded in writing, either
under Section 5 or Section 17 of the Act, has been placed before this
Court, nor has any material been placed to show that such a finding is
available in the files of the Enforcement Directorate.
20. Sri. T. Niranjan Reddy submits that, even if the order of
Debit freeze was issued, under either of these provisions, the
proceedings would have to be forwarded to the adjudicating authority,
which has not been done. He would point to the fact that the 3rd
Respondent had filed an application under Section 17 (4) in relation to
the documents seized on11.12 2020, while no such application has been
filed in relation to the Debit freeze order dated 6.11.2020. He submits
that it would have to be treated that the impugned order dated
6.11.2020 does not meet the requirements of complying with the due
process set out by the Hon’ble supreme Court.
21. Sri. Josyula Bhaskar Rao, the learned standing counsel,
appearing for the Enforcement Directorate, submits that the Judgment
of the Hon’ble Supreme Court was passed with a view to ensure that the
statutory dues, payable by the petitioner before the Hon’ble Supreme
Court, were cleared and the ratio of the said judgment cannot be applied
in the present case. He submits that the impugned proceedings were
passed under the ancillary powers of the 3rd respondent and this is
54
clearly explained in the Judgment of the Hon’ble High Court at Calcutta,
dated 30.03.2015 in the case of Rose Valley Real Estate and
Constructions Limited v. Union of India in F.M.A. No. 4031 of 2014.
22. The contention of Sri. Josyula Bhaskar Rao, that the
ratio of the Hon’ble Supreme Court would not apply to the present case,
has to be rejected. A perusal of the judgment would show that the
judgment is on the interpretation and meaning of the provisions of the
Act, and is not restricted in the manner set out by Sri. Josyula Bhaskar
Rao. The Hon’ble High Court at Calcutta had held, in a similar situation,
that such orders of freezing the bank accounts of the persons under
investigation, is permissible and should be treated as ancillary to the
investigation under progress. However, in view of the judgment of the
Hon’ble Supreme Court, it would not be appropriate to follow the
Judgment of the Hon’ble High Court at Calcutta.
23. In view of the above observations of the Hon’ble
Supreme Court, the action of the 3rd respondent in the present case in
issuing similar orders of debit-freeze/stop operations, cannot be
sustained.
24. In the circumstances, the said order dated 06.11.2020
of the 3rd respondent directing the 4th respondent to freeze the
accounts of the petitioners is not valid and has to be set aside.
25. Accordingly, the Writ Petitions are allowed, setting aside
the order of the 3rd respondent bearing F.No. ECIR/03/VKSZO/2017,
dated 06.11.2020, with a consequential direction to the 4th respondent
to permit the petitioners to operate their account No. 30108921948-
IFSC No. SBIN0004214, A/c No. 30078159489-IFSC No. SBIN0004214
and A/c No. 30078143718 & 10666398179-IFSC No. SBIN0004214.
26. However, this order shall not preclude the 3rd
respondent or the authorities under the Act to initiate action afresh, in
accordance with law, as deemed fit”,
19. The order referred to above is squarely applicable
to the facts of the present case. Other orders/judgments relied
55
by petitioners and respondents, are not required for
adjudication of the present lis.
20. Equally significant is the contention advanced by
Petitioners that notices were not issued to Petitioners 2 to 5
despite Respondents themselves acknowledging that substantial
portions of the seized jewellery belonged to them. The material
on record indicates that jewellery claimed by Petitioners 2 to 5
was also seized and retained. Yet, no independent notices
appear to have been issued to them before continuation of
retention proceedings. The principles of natural justice mandate
that persons whose property rights are directly affected must be
afforded reasonable notice and opportunity of hearing.
Retention of jewellery admittedly claimed by persons who were
neither accused in the scheduled offences nor were issued
notices in the proceedings raises serious concerns regarding
procedural fairness.
21. Respondents have also sought to justify retention of
the jewellery on the ground that discrepancies existed between
the jewellery seized and the valuation reports produced by the
Petitioners. However, petitioners explained that the jewellery
had been acquired over a period of nearly twenty-five years and
that fluctuations in valuation of gold and precious stones would
56
naturally result in differences in valuation. Whether such
explanation is acceptable or not again required objective
examination and recording of findings by the Adjudicating
Authority. Respondent No.1/Adjudicating Authority did not
make any such effort and such exercise.
22. This Court is equally unable to overlook the fact
that the Respondents themselves state in the counter affidavit
that the jewellery is being retained for “ascertaining whether any
part of the proceeds of crime is used for acquiring such
jewellery.” Such averment prima facie indicates that no
conclusive material exists linking the jewellery, etcetera with
proceeds of crime. The statute, undoubtedly, permits
investigation into suspected money laundering activities;
however, exercise of such investigative powers must
nevertheless remain within the limits prescribed by law. In the
instant case there is complete failure on the part of
Respondents in meeting the legal requirements in warranting
the retention of the seizure of the property of petitioners. The
constitutional guarantee prohibits deprivation of property save
by authority of law and such authority must necessarily be
exercised in a fair, reasonable and non-arbitrary manner.
57
23. The objection raised by respondents regarding
maintainability of Writ Petition on the ground of availability of
alternative remedy under Section 26 of the PMLA also cannot be
accepted in the peculiar facts and circumstances of the present
case. Availability of alternative remedy does not operate as an
absolute bar where proceedings are alleged to be without
jurisdiction, violative of principles of natural justice or contrary
to mandatory statutory provisions. The challenge in the present
writ petition is essentially directed against non-compliance with
Sections 17 and 20 of the PMLA and against failure of the
Respondent No. 1/Adjudicating Authority to record satisfaction
as mandated by law. Such issues legitimately fall within the
scope of judicial review under Article 226 of the Constitution of
India.
24. Upon cumulative consideration of the entire
material placed on record, this Court is of the opinion that the
impugned order dated 06.01.2025 passed in Original
Application No.1305/2024 suffers from absence of adequate
reasoning, non-consideration of the documentary material
produced by the Petitioners, failure to record satisfaction as
required under Section 20(4) of the PMLA and violation of
58
principles of natural justice insofar as Petitioners are
concerned, thereby the Impugned order is liable to be set aside.
25. Accordingly, while refraining from expressing any
final opinion on the merits of the allegations under
investigation, the Writ Petition is allowed and impugned order is
set aside. Investigating Agency can proceed with the
investigation in the registered crimes as against the Accused
and take appropriate steps against them.
26. Consequently, the miscellaneous Applications, if
any shall stand closed.
——– —————————–
NAGESH BHEEMAPAKA, J
15th June 2026
ksld
