Candidates appearing for the Assam Judicial Services Examination should practise the Assam Judicial Services Mains 2021 Previous Year Paper (Law Paper-II), which covers important subjects such as IPC, CrPC, Indian Evidence Act, and Law of Torts, along with other previous year papers as part of their preparation. Solving these papers helps aspirants gain a better understanding of the exam pattern, question format, and difficulty level.
It also enhances answer-writing skills, analytical thinking, and time management. Consistent practice further assists candidates in identifying their strengths and weak areas, enabling a more focused and effective preparation strategy.
Assam Judicial Services Mains Written Examination 2021
Law Paper-II
Total Marks: 100 marks
Duration: 3 hours
Group-A: Indian Penal Code, 1860
Question 1
Choose the most appropriate one out of the choices given below: (1*5 = 5)
[i] The Indian Penal Code is divided into ____ ?
[a] XXIV Chapters and 512 Sections
[b] XXIV Chapters and 511 Sections
[c] XXIII Chapters and 512 Sections
[d] XXIII Chapters and 511 Sections
[ii] As per Section 10 of the Indian Penal Code, word ‘man’ denotes a male human being and ‘woman’ denotes a female human being of ____ age?
[a] above 7 years
[b] above 18 years
[c] above 21 years
[d] any age
[iii] A hangman who hangs the prisoners pursuant to the orders of the Court is exempt from criminal liability by virtue of ____ ?
[a] Section 76, Indian Penal Code
[b] Section 78, Indian Penal Code
[c] Section 77, Indian Penal Code
[d] Section 80, Indian Penal Code
[iv] A is invited by B for a cup of tea. While B is in the kitchen preparing tea, A finds a golden ring on the table. He picks it up and places it somewhere in the room with the intention of dishonestly taking it away some time later. A commits ____ ?
[a] Dishonest misappropriation of property
[b] Theft
[c] Attempt to commit theft
[d] cheating
[v] Which one of the following is not an essential ingredient of the offence of kidnapping under the Indian Penal Code?
[a] Minor child
[b] Intention of the accused
[c] Without the consent of the lawful guardian
[d] Out of the keeping of the lawful guardian
Question 2
Read the following illustrations. Each illustration shows commission of a particular offence under the Indian Penal Code. Name the offence in terms of the Indian Penal Code against each illustration. (1 * 3 = 3)
[i] A enters into or upon the property in the possession B after having taking precautions to conceal such entry from B and other persons, with intent to commit an offence or to intimidate, insult or annoy B.
[ii] X causes cattle to enter upon a field belonging to Y, intending to cause and knowing that he is likely to cause damage to Y’s crop.
[iii] M intentionally deceives N into a belief that M has performed M’s part of a contract made with N, which he has not performed, and thereby dishonestly induces N to pay money.
Question 3
Answer any two from the following three:- (3 * 2 = 6)
[i] How do theft and extortion become robbery? When a robbery can be branded as dacoity?
[ii] State briefly criminal misappropriation of property and criminal breach of trust.
[iii] What is Kidnapping? Distinguish it from abduction. Whether age is a factor in Kidnapping?
Question 4
A, B, C and D jointly plan to beat up X. While X is being assaulted, his daughter intervenes who is molested by D. While retreating from X’s house, B picks up a watch. For what offences A, B, C and D are liable? (4)
Question 5
Define the right of private defence. When does a person not have this right? When does this right extend to causing death? When does this right start and when does it end? (7)
Group B: Criminal Procedure Code
Question 6
Choose the most appropriate one out of the choices given below: (1*5 = 5)
[i] The term ‘taking cognizance’ under the provisions of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 means –
[a] Starting a trial.
[b] Completing preliminary steps for starting a trial.
[c] Taking notice of the matter judicially.
[d] An administrative act to decide if trial is required.
[ii] The Magistrate under the provisions of Section 203, Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 can dismiss a complaint –
[a] Even if the proceedings against the accused have commenced.
[b] Even if there is sufficient ground for proceeding.
[c] Even if enquiry under Section 202 of the CrPC is not done.
[d] Even if complainant is not examined.
[iii] Section 160 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 authorises a police officer to: –
[a] summon a person as a witness
[b] summon a person for the production of documents
[c] summon a person for the production of an article(s)
[d] all of the above
[iv] During inquiry or trial, the accused is remanded to custody: –
[a] Under Section 167 [1], Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
[b] Under Section 167 [2], Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
[c] Under Section 309 [1], Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
[d] Under Section 309 [2], Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
[v] If the proclaimed person does not appear within the time specified in the proclamation, the property under attachment: –
[a] Shall not be sold until expiry of six months from the date of attachment
[b] Shall not be sold until any claim or objection under Section 84 have been disposed of
[c] Both [a] & [b]
[d] Either [a] or [b]
Question 7
Discuss the salient differences between the following two [any two]:- 2½ X 2 = 5
[i] Assistant Public Prosecutor and Public Prosecutor
[ii] Recording of statement under Section 161 and statement under Section 164.
[iii] Summons procedure case and warrant procedure case.
Question 8
What is the relevance of Schedule I of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973. Discuss its relevance to the Indian Penal Code and bailable/non-bailable and cognizable/non-cognizable offences. (7)
Question 9
Under what circumstances and by whom maintenance may be claimed under the provisions of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973? When a wife is not entitled to maintenance from her husband? When can the Magistrate cancel the order of maintenance allowance to wife ? Whether any alteration in the allowance can be made? (8)
Group C: Evidence Act
Question 10
Choose the most appropriate one out of the choices given below:- (1* 5 = 5)
[i] The facts which form part of the same transaction are relevant –
[a] Under Section 5 of the Evidence Act
[b] Under Section 6 of the Evidence Act
[c] Under Section 7 of the Evidence Act
[d] Under Section 8 of the Evidence Act
[ii] The plea of alibi is governed by –
[a] Section 6 of the Evidence Act
[b] Section 8 of the Evidence Act
[c] Section 12 of the Evidence Act
[d] Section 11 of the Evidence Act
[iii] Contents of a document may be proved under Section 61 of the Evidence Act –
[a] By primary evidence
[b] By secondary evidence
[c] Either by primary or by secondary evidence
[d] Only by primary evidence & not by secondary evidence
[iv] Due execution of a document more than thirty years old coming from proper custody is a –
[a] Presumption of fact
[b] Rebuttable presumption of law
[c] Irrebuttable presumption of law
[d] Presumption of fact & law both
[v] The presumption of continuance of life is contained in –
[a] Section 106 of the Evidence Act
[b] Section 107 of the Evidence Act
[c] Section 108 of the Evidence Act
[d] Section 109 of the Evidence Act
Question 11
Write short notes on any two of the following giving suitable examples: (2 * 2 = 4)
[i] Primary evidence
[ii] Public Documents
[iii] Extra Judicial Confession
[iv] Doctrine of Estoppel
Question 12
Discuss the salient differences between the following [any two] :- (4 * 2 = 8)
[i] Giving false information and giving false evidence.
[ii] Public document and Private document.
[iii] Admission and confession.
Question 13
Discuss on the various kinds of presumptions under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 with reference to the specific provisions contained therein. (8)
Group D: Law of Torts
Question 14
Write brief notes on any two of the following:- (2½ X 2 = 5)
[i] Doctrine of strict liability
[ii] Res ipsa loquitur
[iii] Exception to the maxim volenti non fit injuria
[iv] Defence of Qualified Privilege
Question 15
Discuss any four from the following case laws:- (4 * 3 = 12)
[i] Rylands vs. Fletcher
[ii] Ashby vs. White
[iii] Jai Laxmi Salt Works [P] Limited vs. State of Gujarat,
[iv] Union Carbide Corporation vs. Union of India,
[v] M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India,
[vi] Municipal Corporation of Delhi vs. Association of Victims of Uphaar Tragedy,
[vii] DAV Managing Committee & Anr. v. Dabvali Fire Tragedy Victims Association,
[viii] Sanjay Gupta and others vs. State of Uttar Pradesh through its Chief Secretary and others,
Question 16
“A tort is an infringement of right in rem of an individual, giving a right of compensation at the suit of the injured party.” Discuss this statement and state how tort differs from a crime and breach of contract. (8)
